FAA Part 107 Drone Pilot Test

The FAA gives you 120 minutes to take 60 test questions.
You should answer these 60 questions within 120 minutes.
The passing grade is 70% or better. Good luck!
Your Test Time Remaining is: minutes

1. What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

A. Towering cumulus. B. Cumulonimbus. C. Nimbostratus.

2. What does the outbound destination sign identify?

A. Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway. B. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located. C. Identifies direction to take-off runways.

3. (Refer to Figure 2.) If an unmanned airplane weighs 33 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

A. 34 pounds. B. 47 pounds. C. 38 pounds.

Figure 2

4. (Refer to Figure 26, area 4.) You have been hired to inspect the tower under construction at 46.9N and 98.6W, near Jamestown Regional (JMS). What must you receive prior to flying your unmanned aircraft in this area?

A. Authorization from the military. B. Authorization from ATC. C. Authorization from the National Park Service.

Figure 26

5. When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's

A. true course. B. ground track. C. magnetic heading.

6. To enter a Security Identification Display Area (SIDA) you will need to

A. obtain written permission from the TSA. B. be escorted by the head of airport security. C. have and display a security badge.

7. What effect does high density altitude have on the efficiency of a UA propeller?

A. Propeller efficiency is increased. B. Propeller efficiency is decreased. C. Density altitude does not affect propeller efficiency.

8. (Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

A. 1,534 feet AGL. B. 1,549 feet MSL. C. 1,500 feet MSL.

Figure 23

9. The FAA may approve your application for a waiver of provisions in part 107 only when it has been determined that the proposed operation:

A. Will be conducted outside of the United States. B. Involves public aircraft or air carrier operations. C. Can be safely conducted under the terms of that certificate of waiver.

10. The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is

A. 4 nautical miles. B. 6 nautical miles. C. 8 nautical miles.

11. Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

A. Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds. B. Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain. C. Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.

12. A local TV station has hired a remote pilot to operate their small UA to cover breaking news stories. The remote pilot has had multiple near misses with obstacles on the ground and two small UAS accidents. What would be a solution for the news station to improve their operating safety culture?

A. The news station should implement a policy of no more than five crashes/incidents within 6 months. B. The news station does not need to make any changes; there are times that an accident is unavoidable. C. The news station should recognize hazardous attitudes and situations and develop standard operating procedures that emphasize safety.

13. (Refer to Figure 49.) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.

A. Left-hand traffic and Runway 18. B. Right-hand traffic and Runway 18. C. Left-hand traffic and Runway 22.

Figure 49

14. When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

A. The airspace designation normally will not change. B. The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available. C. The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

15. According to 14 CFR part 48, when must a person register a small UA with the Federal Aviation Administration?

A. All civilian small UAs weighing greater than .55 pounds must be registered regardless of its intended use. B. When the small UA is used for any purpose other than as a model aircraft. C. Only when the operator will be paid for commercial services.

16. At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82 °F and the dewpoint is 38 °F?

A. 9,000 feet AGL. B. 10,000 feet AGL. C. 11,000 feet AGL.

17. (Refer to Figure 52.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are

A. to the right on Runway 17 and Runway 35; to the left on Runway 18 and Runway 35. B. to the left on Runway 17 and Runway 36; to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35. C. to the right on Runways 14 - 32.

Figure 52

18. (Refer to Figure 22, area 2; and Figure 31.) At Coeur d'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?

A. 122.05 MHz. B. 122.1/108.8 MHz. C. 122.8 MHz.

Figure 22

Figure 31

19. Exhaust plumes are most dangerous when

A. the surrounding air is calm and cold. B. they are visible. C. they come from larger towers.

20. When adapting crew resource management (CRM) concepts to the operation of a small UA, CRM must be integrated into

A. the flight portion only. B. all phases of the operation. C. the communications only.

21. (Refer to Figure 26, area 5.) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?

A. 122.0 MHz. B. 122.8 MHz. C. 123.6 MHz.

Figure 26

22. What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Antiauthority"?

A. Rules do not apply in this situation. B. I know what I am doing. C. Follow the rules.

23. A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

A. satellite airport's UNICOM. B. associated Flight Service Station. C. primary airport's control tower.

24. (Refer to Figure 21, area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is

A. 122.8 MHz. B. 122.9 MHz. C. 123.0 MHz.

Figure 21

25. Unmanned aircraft means an aircraft operated:

A. During search and rescue operations other than public. B. Without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft. C. For hobby and recreational use when not certificated.

26. A public unmanned aircraft system (UAS)

A. is the only type approved for operations in public locations. B. is a UAS owned or operated by a federal, state, or local government agency. C. is never subject to 14 CFR Part 107.

27. The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a

A. frontolysis. B. frontogenesis. C. front.

28. (Refer to Figure 25, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

A. 122.95 MHz. B. 126.0 MHz. C. 133.4 MHz.

Figure 25

29. Under Part 107, you must cease operating an sUAS at

A. sunset. B. the end of evening civil twilight. C. the beginning of morning civil twilight.

30. While operating a small unmanned aircraft system (sUAS), you experience a flyaway and several people suffer injuries. Which of the following injuries requires reporting to the FAA?

A. An injury requiring an overnight hospital stay. B. Scrapes and cuts bandaged on site. C. Minor bruises.

31. Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

A. Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue; Class D and E airspace are magenta. B. Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta. C. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

32. (Refer to Figure 20, area 2.) Why would the small flag at Lake Drummond of the sectional chart be important to a remote pilot?

A. This is a VFR check point for manned aircraft, and a higher volume of air traffic should be expected there. B. This is a GPS check point that can be used by both manned and remote pilots for orientation. C. This indicates that there will be a large obstruction depicted on the next printing of the chart.

Figure 20

33. When preparing for a night flight, what should an sUAS pilot be aware of after assembling and conducting a preflight of an aircraft while using a bright flashlight or work light?

A. Once adapted to darkness, a persons eyes are relatively immune to bright lights. B. It takes approximately 30 minutes for a persons eyes to fully adapt to darkness. C. The person should use a flashlight equipped with LED lights to facilitate their night vision.

34. One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is

A. small temperature/dewpoint spread. B. stratiform clouds. C. visible moisture.

35. The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle between the

A. chord line of the wing and the relative wind. B. airplanes longitudinal axis and that of the air striking the airfoil. C. airplane's centerline and the relative wind.

36. (Refer to Figure 21.) The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from

A. sea level to 2,000 feet MSL. B. 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL. C. 2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL.

Figure 21

37. When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the "taxiway directional sign" indicates

A. direction to the take-off runway. B. designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection. C. designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

38. According to 14 CFR part 107, what is required to operate a small UA within 30 minutes after official sunset?

A. Use of anti-collision lights. B. Must be operated in a rural area. C. Use of a transponder.

39. The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is

A. "FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED." B. "FOUR POINT FIVE." C. "FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL."

40. Use the acronym IMSAFE before operating your sUAS to

A. make sure you meet all regulatory requirements. B. preflight your sUAS. C. make sure you as the remote pilot are fit for the flight.

41. One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the

A. wind direction. B. type of precipitation. C. stability of the air mass.

42. The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is

A. "TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET." B. "TEN POINT FIVE." C. "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."

43. Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as

A. mammatocumulus clouds. B. standing lenticular clouds. C. roll clouds.

44. Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

A. water vapor condenses. B. water vapor is present. C. relative humidity reaches 100 percent.

45. Under what condition should the operator of a small UA establish scheduled maintenance protocol?

A. When the manufacturer does not provide a maintenance schedule. B. UAS does not need to require maintenance. C. When the FAA requires you to, following an accident.

46. Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a

A. movement of air. B. pressure differential. C. heat exchange.

47. The suffix "nimbus," used in naming clouds, means

A. a cloud with extensive vertical development. B. a rain cloud. C. a middle cloud containing ice pellets.

48. When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is

A. "MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER." B. "MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER." C. "MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."

49. (Refer to Figure 12.) What are the wind conditions at Wink, Texas (KINK)?

A. Calm. B. 110° at 12 knots, gusts 18 knots. C. 111° at 2 knots, gusts 18 knots.

Figure 12

50. The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the

A. position of the CG. B. speed of the airplane. C. abruptness at which the load is applied.

51. (Refer to Figure 15.) What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast?

A. Variable in direction at 4 knots. B. No significant wind. C. Variable in direction at 6 knots.

Figure 15

52. The CARE attention scan can be used

A. before starting operations to evaluate the risks. B. during operations to maintain situational awareness. C. at the end of operations to debrief the crew.

53. The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

A. terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night. B. warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain. C. the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.

54. Which technique should a remote pilot use to scan for traffic? A remote pilot should

A. systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals. B. concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area. C. continuously scan the sky from right to left.

55. (Refer to Figure 20, area 3.) With ATC authorization, you are operating your small unmanned aircraft approximately 4 SM southeast of Elizabeth City Regional Airport (ECG). What hazard is indicated to be in that area?

A. High density military operations in the vicinity. B. Unmarked balloon on a cable up to 3,008 feet AGL. C. Unmarked balloon on a cable up to 3,008 feet MSL.

Figure 20

56. While operating around buildings, the Remote Pilot in Command should be aware of the creation of wind gusts that:

A. Change rapidly in direction and speed causing turbulence. B. Increase performance of the aircraft. C. Enhance stability and imagery.

57. (Refer to Figure 12.) The remarks section for KMDW has RAB35 listed. This entry means

A. blowing mist has reduced the visibility to 1-1/2 SM. B. rain began at 1835Z. C. the barometer has risen .35 inches Hg.

Figure 12

58. The effective use of all available resources—human, hardware, and information—prior to and during flight to ensure the successful outcome of the operation is called:

A. Safety Management System. B. Crew Resource Management. C. Risk Management.

59. Identify the hazardous attitude or characteristic a remote pilot displays while taking risks in order to impress others?

A. Impulsivity. B. Invulnerability. C. Macho.

60. (Refer to Figure 15.) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?

A. 1200Z to 1200Z. B. 1200Z to 1800Z. C. 1800Z to 2400Z.

Figure 15